Share this comment
Eugyppius posted this pre-print of one patient and the sequence of the monkeypox. It appears to be a sequence seen a few years ago in Israel which would suggest that this is at least not a bioterrorism event. It at least supports a possible zoonotic event.
https://virological.org/t/first-draft-genome-sequence-of-monkeypox-virus-associated…
Eugyppius posted this pre-print of one patient and the sequence of the monkeypox. It appears to be a sequence seen a few years ago in Israel which would suggest that this is at least not a bioterrorism event. It at least supports a possible zoonotic event.
https://virological.org/t/first-draft-genome-sequence-of-monkeypox-virus-associated-with-the-suspected-multi-country-outbreak-may-2022-confirmed-case-in-portugal/799
The festival is interesting. There appears to be an outbreak linked to a sauna in Madrid. It appears that the festival may have served as an epicenter for people to have travelled across the western world. Travel between other European countries would be easy, and it may explain why this is occurring in predominately western countries. Cultural stigma against homosexuals in other Eastern countries probably precludes them from these activities.
I partly believe the reason this is predominately occurring in the gay community is not just because of a large event but also because many people may be mistaking the skin legions as an STI. That, along with their sexual activities would explain why many of these reports are coming from sex clinics.
To be quite honest I'm rather dismayed at the immediate jump to start blaming "the gays" for spreading this disease. I'm seeing a lot of ignorance popping up, especially arguing that this is exclusively occurring in gay men- it's not. Also, monkeypox can also spread through respiratory droplets which means that close contact is needed sans any sex. So if this virus' genome is the same as ones seen previously, which indicates it can also spread through respiratory droplets, how is it than we can now assume this is a sexually transmitted disease only?
As to the cause, I would wonder if there was someone who had the bright idea to import monkeys or animals into the region and thus causing the outbreak.
But anyways, great and thorough article!
From what I've seen in the corporate media, the reporting on the homosexual men angle has not been outwardly condemnatory, although there is a decided undercurrent of what could be described as homophobia.
There is an historical irony in misperceiving monkeypox as an STI. Smallpox was often contrasted with the "great pox" of syphilis, which IS an STI.
https://sfamjournals.onlinelibrary.wiley.com/doi/full/10.1046/j.1365-2672.2001.01494.x
Right, I find it far more plausible that a group of men who notice changes to their genitalia would first assume STI rather than pox, especially because we assume it to be eradicated.
I just find it rather jarring how quickly many people on Substack went the route of making this out to be a gay disease. So much for a nuanced discussion I suppose.
I haven't seen that, personally. I find it truthful to say that "this is where there is a current outbreak"--especially to alert gay men leading up to Pride month that there is a new risk to be aware of. I understand the sensitivity around connecting monkeypox and homosexuality, but I think reasonable people understand what an outbreak is. I think people can understand this is a disease that anyone can catch, but there is a current outbreak among gay men. It would make no sense to hide this information from gay men, either. I haven't seen anyone saying "it's a gay disease", but rather, attempting to evaluate his or her own level of risk according to the facts available right now.
My question is when did "men who have sex with men" become the style guide option over "gay men"?
It's not happening to the extent that I am making it out to be- I will admit it may be rather hyperbolic in language. Nonetheless, I do see it happening, such that somehow a disease that never really was transmitted predominately through sex is now being claimed as being a sex only disease targeting gay men i.e. "a gay disease".
There's a large difference between saying that this is a disease predominately spreading through the gay community (of which they should be alerted) as well as say this is a disease only affecting gay men. I don't appreciate the level to which a mischaracterization is occurring with respect to how this disease transmits if it depends on some biases.
As to the question, it's probably because it includes bisexual men. I suppose it's a difference between behavior and sexual orientation. But I do think "gay sex" would actually be an accurate depiction.
We have to remember because of many of their activities, as well as the rectal exposure to foreign protein, many in the homosexual mens community have damaged immune systems.
This makes them a particularly attractive target for "biowarfare" experiments.
Yes, as much as some people may not like it, they are victims, sometimes even more so than the rest of us.